According to your very own interpretation with this question there is no such thing as a crime because every time a crime is committed someone has to step in and define what a crime is. We can’t say a victim was murdered because there’s no one to determine what a murder is. Fraud and larceny cannot possibly be crimes because the Constitution nor the Senate have appointed someone to define what larceny and fraud is.
Do you not see how psychotic resorting to such ridiculous semantics are?
Why is everyone so desperate to back up the SCOTUS claim that ‘there is no law, therefore there can be no disorder’?
It’s not even a “dogs can’t play basketball!” ruling; it’s a “there are no dogs” ruling.
Are you really not aware that one of the primary jobs of Congress is to literally define what a crime is? That’s what laws are. There is literally a statute (several actually) passed by Congress that does define what murder, fraud, and larceny are. That’s the cornerstone of due process. A crime isn’t a crime unless there is a law being broken. You have failed your constitution test.
Where did I mention an amendment? The constitution gives Congress the ability to write laws. Those laws are not constitutional amendments or part of the Constitution in any way. They are part of the US criminal code. Well defined laws have been foundational to modern justice systems since at least the time of Hammurabi.
This entire case is based around interpreting an amendment. Colorado was following Constitutional Amendment and the supreme Court said that they cannot follow a constitutional amendment because following the Constitutional amendment is illegal. This is so very uncomplicated
According to your very own interpretation with this question there is no such thing as a crime because every time a crime is committed someone has to step in and define what a crime is. We can’t say a victim was murdered because there’s no one to determine what a murder is. Fraud and larceny cannot possibly be crimes because the Constitution nor the Senate have appointed someone to define what larceny and fraud is.
Do you not see how psychotic resorting to such ridiculous semantics are?
Why is everyone so desperate to back up the SCOTUS claim that ‘there is no law, therefore there can be no disorder’?
It’s not even a “dogs can’t play basketball!” ruling; it’s a “there are no dogs” ruling.
Are you really not aware that one of the primary jobs of Congress is to literally define what a crime is? That’s what laws are. There is literally a statute (several actually) passed by Congress that does define what murder, fraud, and larceny are. That’s the cornerstone of due process. A crime isn’t a crime unless there is a law being broken. You have failed your constitution test.
And you are telling me that an actual amendment was passed concerning a crime that nobody seems to know exists or what it is or how to define it?
Where did I mention an amendment? The constitution gives Congress the ability to write laws. Those laws are not constitutional amendments or part of the Constitution in any way. They are part of the US criminal code. Well defined laws have been foundational to modern justice systems since at least the time of Hammurabi.
This entire case is based around interpreting an amendment. Colorado was following Constitutional Amendment and the supreme Court said that they cannot follow a constitutional amendment because following the Constitutional amendment is illegal. This is so very uncomplicated