I understand that “neutral” doesn’t take a position and explicitly gendered language does. I understand that using generic (not gendered) plural third person pronouns in a singular form is both grammatically correct and universally accepted in languages that do not already have a gender-neutral pronoun. Notice the use “neutral” in “gender-neutral” to refer to the generic (not gendered) pronoun.

I don’t understand where you explain how a lack of gender-neutral pronouns is neutral. Could you show me where you did that? If you didn’t, you “clearly” don’t understand the point I was making.