Donbas has had election long before it INVITED Russia to intervene on its behalf.
Yes, I’m talking about general elections that Donbas holds here, not some specific election. The government is elected. The elected government that represents the people of Donbas invited Russia for assistance. What part of this are you struggling with specifically?
I’m struggling with you not being able to provide a date for some election or referendum from before the invasion where the people in any way would have indicated that they wish for an intervention.
As you are unable to do so, I conclude that we agree that the people did indeed not wish to be annexed, so that settles thaz point.
Seems like you’re struggling with a concept of how governments work. People elect leaders who make political decisions. Donbas has always had elections, and the elected government invited Russia for help. I hope that one day you’ll be able to grok this complex concept.
Are you saying that any action taken by an elected government, even if it e.g. goes against what was promised during the election, and even if it has only e.g. 51% support, by definition has the support of the entire people?
If you don’t mean that, then please tell me which election you think indicated that the people wanted to be invaded? Was it the 2012 parliamentary election? Some other election? What exactly about that election result makes you think the people supported the intervention? Wss it the success of some specific candidates or parties with known agendas? Something else?
If you do mean that a government always by definition can do whatever and still represent the people, does that not mean that Russia can end the war no matter the popular opinion?
It would be good to know which of these two opinions you hold.
I love how you’re hamfistedly trying to set up a loaded question here. Go read up on how Ukraine was put together by USSR, and where Donbas comes from originally.
You yourself mentioned the elections and thst they legitimize the intervention. I want to know in which way? Is it because the intervention was “requested by an elected government” and thus by definition represents the will of the people, or is it because the result of the election reflects the population’s desire for an intervention?
But you mow seem to claim there is some third form how the intervention was legitimized that has nothing at all to do with the elections?
So let’s take a step back: is the intervention legitimized by an election, and if so, which one, or is it legitimized by the historical composition of the Soviet Union as you now seem to claim?
Yes, I’m talking about general elections that Donbas holds here, not some specific election. The government is elected. The elected government that represents the people of Donbas invited Russia for assistance. What part of this are you struggling with specifically?
I’m struggling with you not being able to provide a date for some election or referendum from before the invasion where the people in any way would have indicated that they wish for an intervention.
As you are unable to do so, I conclude that we agree that the people did indeed not wish to be annexed, so that settles thaz point.
Seems like you’re struggling with a concept of how governments work. People elect leaders who make political decisions. Donbas has always had elections, and the elected government invited Russia for help. I hope that one day you’ll be able to grok this complex concept.
Are you saying that any action taken by an elected government, even if it e.g. goes against what was promised during the election, and even if it has only e.g. 51% support, by definition has the support of the entire people?
If you don’t mean that, then please tell me which election you think indicated that the people wanted to be invaded? Was it the 2012 parliamentary election? Some other election? What exactly about that election result makes you think the people supported the intervention? Wss it the success of some specific candidates or parties with known agendas? Something else?
If you do mean that a government always by definition can do whatever and still represent the people, does that not mean that Russia can end the war no matter the popular opinion?
It would be good to know which of these two opinions you hold.
nice straw man bud
Ok, what is the third option then?
I love how you’re hamfistedly trying to set up a loaded question here. Go read up on how Ukraine was put together by USSR, and where Donbas comes from originally.
That in no way answers the question.
You yourself mentioned the elections and thst they legitimize the intervention. I want to know in which way? Is it because the intervention was “requested by an elected government” and thus by definition represents the will of the people, or is it because the result of the election reflects the population’s desire for an intervention?
But you mow seem to claim there is some third form how the intervention was legitimized that has nothing at all to do with the elections?
So let’s take a step back: is the intervention legitimized by an election, and if so, which one, or is it legitimized by the historical composition of the Soviet Union as you now seem to claim?
I was very clear in what I said, if you can’t understand what I already wrote then I can’t help you.