We don’t need something to “sound like rape”. If he was guilty of it, meaning there was sufficient evidence, in the jury’s opinion, the jury would have found him guilty of it. I’m sure they weren’t looking to do him any favors. Obviously the defense failed to prove their case relative to rape.
Now, did he do it? Probably. He’s a career criminal. But the line has to be drawn somewhere, and for me, if you’re found guilty of it, be it a criminal court room, or a civil one, that’s when I can safely say a person is what they’ve been found guilty of being.
Take emotions and opinions out of it, and just stick to the facts. He’s guilty in a civil case of defamation and sexual abuse.
I don’t particularly care what the legal system calls something that’s pretty much impossible to prove. And I don’t understand why you’re using my words as if it’s legally relevant. I’ll quote the article, because I don’t think you’ve read it: “A judge has now clarified that this is basically a legal distinction without a real-world difference.”
I read three independent articles on the subject, including the one from last year, I don’t need to read a fourth.
I find it interesting you admit something is difficult to prove, yet feel perfectly comfortable making accusations on the subject. I’ll stick to the facts, thanks, and leave my bias out of it.
We don’t need something to “sound like rape”. If he was guilty of it, meaning there was sufficient evidence, in the jury’s opinion, the jury would have found him guilty of it. I’m sure they weren’t looking to do him any favors. Obviously the defense failed to prove their case relative to rape.
Now, did he do it? Probably. He’s a career criminal. But the line has to be drawn somewhere, and for me, if you’re found guilty of it, be it a criminal court room, or a civil one, that’s when I can safely say a person is what they’ve been found guilty of being.
Take emotions and opinions out of it, and just stick to the facts. He’s guilty in a civil case of defamation and sexual abuse.
I don’t particularly care what the legal system calls something that’s pretty much impossible to prove. And I don’t understand why you’re using my words as if it’s legally relevant. I’ll quote the article, because I don’t think you’ve read it: “A judge has now clarified that this is basically a legal distinction without a real-world difference.”
I read three independent articles on the subject, including the one from last year, I don’t need to read a fourth.
I find it interesting you admit something is difficult to prove, yet feel perfectly comfortable making accusations on the subject. I’ll stick to the facts, thanks, and leave my bias out of it.