Like I don’t get it, he owns 9% of the shares, doesn’t he still need like 42% of other shareholders to vote in in as CEO? So isn’t he still subject to the will of the other shareholders? 🤔
(Disclaimer: I have no idea how this works, which is why I’m asking)
Aren’t they pretty much the same thing, one in the US the other in the UK?
The US one is over-dramatized